First let's look at a few things. Assume that you've already explained how a perpetuity formula works (without growth), you know that the value of a perpetuity is:
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Where:
- PV is the present value
- CF is the cash flow per period
- r is the rate per period
The next question I would propose is this, what is the value of the perpetuity in period n at time 0? Well, it would be:
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PV @ n = PV / (1+r)^n
= CF / [r x (1+r)^n]
Now the last question, what is th value (both of the cash flows and the PV) of the perpetuity now minus the perpetuity at time n? Well, if you draw a diagram, the answer is an annuity from 0 to n. And the math shows the same:
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PV - PV @ n = PV - PV / (1+r)^n
= PV (1 - 1/(1+r)^n)
= CF (1 - 1/(1+r)^n) / r
This is the annuity formula for a cash flow CF, to period n at discount rate r, which is much easier than doing a DCF for each of the cash flows (imagine doing a DCF for 30 even cash flows mechanically).
This is a slight variation on the question that Kent Womack presented to us at our review session in the ROM and also highlights how the formula for annuities is constructed.
1 comment:
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